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I was recently told I have dysplasia. I just had a leep done. I have been reading on the net that dysplasia is caused by hpv which is a std. I have only had one sexual partner in my life and that is my husband. I have always had clean pap smears and get them every year. so does this mean he gave me this? could have I gotten dysplasia some other way? my husband cheated 6 years ago. could he have given me this from that long ago or does it have to be more recent? does this mean he has hpv? does he need to be tested?
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